Fatwaa ID: 845
A mahr of 5,000 was fixed. The groom did not give it to his wife. It has been 30 years, and now he decides to give her the mahr.
That 5,000 in today’s time is now valued at 50,000.
How much mahr is this man supposed to give? He gives what he has promised or how much value that money from back then would have had now?
Same question for another bride and groom but they have been married for 4 years, and the amount fixated has lost some value
In the Name of Allaah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.
As-salaamu ‘alaykum wa-rahmatullaahi wa-barakaatuh.
We take note of the details of your query. The mahr is regarded as a debt on the husband until paid. Inflation is not considered in this. Hence, if they agreed to $5,000, then he will only have to pay her $5,000 even if the value has increased or decreased. He does not have to give anything extra. This applies to both scenarios in question. However, if he wishes to willingly and voluntarily give her more to make her happy, then that is permissible.
And Allaah Ta’aala knows best.
Mufti Muajul I. Chowdhury
Darul Iftaa New York
08/23/1444 AH – 03/15/2023 CE | AML1-7311
وصل اللهم وسلم وبارك على سيدنا محمد وعلى ءاله وصحبه أجمعين
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