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Signing off land to children during father’s lifetime, inheritance related

Fatwaa ID: 074

Question:

Aslaamulaiqum

Please reply at your earliest convenience.

Please give a simple answer and in simple English.

Whilst my father was alive he transferred the ownership of all his land and property in Pakistan and properties in the U.K. (legally)to my name and my two brothers names. He also signed over half of one of his houses (from UK) to my one sister and the other half to me.  When he was alive he clearly stated that me and my siblings are to have the land and properties as mentioned above.

So basically my father transferred/signed over the ownership(legally) of all the land and properties to me and my siblings when he was alive.

Whilst he was alive he lived in the U.K. and he continued to manage/control the land and properties in Pakistan and the UK, which we had no problem with our father doing this. The land in Pakistan were and are all empty with grass, trees, bushes etc. Some of the land my father has given permission to our village cousins& friends to grow crops for their own use, as we don’t use any of the land.  And the house in Pakistan is empty with old beds, fans, and old clothes and other old stuff as my father and the rest of us live in UK.

My father continued to send the payment for the electrcity Bill for the house in Pakistan, as he didn’t want the electricity to be stopped even though the house is empty and we all lived and live in the U.K.

The last time my father actually stayed in the house in Pakistan was in 2001 and that was the year he transferred the land and properties in Pakistan over to me and my siblings.

Me(including my wife and son) and my sister live in the house in the UK, which he transferred(ownership) to me and and my sister. Whilst he was alive, during the nights he slept and had all his clothes in a different house with my stepmother.  But spent the daytimes and ate and did everything else in the house that me and my sister live in(the house that he transferred the ownership to me and my sister), which we had no problem with as he was our father and we continued to see him as the head of the house.. My stepmother would also spend most of the day wherever he was. He also paid for most of the food and paid most of the bills and I paid some of the bills in the house he gave to me and my sister, as this was his choice even after I asked him to let me pay the  bills. He also kept some of his things such as passports, medicine that he took during the day, some shoes that he wore and other bits and bobs in the house that he gave to me and my sister.

He did not give any share to my stepmother. My real mother passed away before my father.

Now that my father has passed away and he clearly stated and transferred/signed over the ownership (legally) of the land and properties as explained above to me and my siblings before he passed away, does my stepmother need to be given any share of the above explained land and properties?

Jazak’Allah

Answer:

In the Name of Allaah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.

As-salāmu ‘alaykum wa-rahmatullāhi wa-barakātuh.

We take note of the contents of your email. May Allaah Ta’aala shower your parents with His infinite Mercy and admit them into Jannah. Aameen.

You state that your father signed off the abovementioned lands and properties to you and your siblings during his lifetime and accordingly you and your siblings took possession. Hence, it was a gift from your father to you and your siblings[i]. Your stepmother will not inherit from the abovementioned lands and properties.

However, your stepmother[ii] will be entitled to 1/8th of your father’s personal belongings and wealth at the time of his death. If the siblings offer some portion of the estate to the stepmother and also take care of her; that will be a gesture of goodwill and an act of reward.

And Allaah Ta’aala Knows Best.
Muajul I. Chowdhury
Student, Darul Iftaa
New York, USA

Checked and Approved by,
Mufti Ebrahim Desai.

10/30/2017

وصل اللهم وسلم وبارك على سيدنا محمد وعلى ءاله وصحبه أجمعين


[i]  درر الحكام شرح مجلة الأحكام (2/ 401)

( المادة 861 ) – ( يملك الموهوب له بالقبض الموهوب ) . يملك الموهوب له بطريق الهبة الموهوب بعد الإيجاب وقبض الموهوب بالذات أو بواسطة نائبه ملكا غير لازم ( الهداية ) فإذا كان الموهوب له واحدا ملكه مستقلا وإذا كان متعددا فيملكونه بالاشتراك وهذا الملك ليس مستحق السلامة . مثلا : لو قال أحد خطابا لاثنين : قد وهبتكما هذا المال وسلمهما إياه واتهبه الآخران وتسلماه كان الموهوب لهما مالكين له مناصفة . لكن يلزم وجود الشرائط الآتية في ثبوت الملك فيه . 1 – كون الموهوب محرزا يعني كونه مفرزا عن ملك الواهب وحقوقه 2 – كون الموهوب غير مشغول بملك الواهب 3 – ألا تكون الهبة بطريق المواضعة 4 – كون القبض المذكور قبضا كاملا يعني يشترط ألا يكون الموهوب القابل القسمة مشاعا وقت القبض كما ذكرت التفصيلات في شرح المادة ( 858 ) وقريبا توضح المواضعة أيضا . والحاصل , يشترط في قبض الموهوب ثبوت ملك الموهب للموهوب له

الفتاوى الهندية (4/ 391)

ولو وهب رجل شيئا لأولاده في الصحة وأراد تفضيل البعض على البعض في ذلك لا رواية لهذا في الأصل عن أصحابنا وروي عن أبي حنيفة رحمه الله تعالى أنه لا بأس به إذا كان التفضيل لزيادة فضل له في الدين وإن كانا سواء يكره وروى المعلى عن أبي يوسف رحمه الله تعالى أنه لا بأس به إذا لم يقصد به الإضرار وإن قصد به الإضرار سوى بينهم يعطي الابنة مثل ما يعطي للابن وعليه الفتوى هكذا في فتاوى قاضي خان وهو المختار كذا في الظهيرية رجل وهب في صحته كل المال للولد جاز في القضاء ويكون آثما فيما صنع كذا في فتاوى قاضي خان

فتاوى قاضيخان (3/ 154)

ولو وهب رجل شيئا لأولاده في الصحة وأراد تفضيل البعض في ذلك على البعض لا رواية لهذا في الأصل عن أصحابنا رحمهم الله تعالى روي عن أبي حنيفة رحمه الله تعالى أنه لا بأس به إذا كان التفضيل لزيادة فضل له في الدين فإن كانا سواء يكره وروى المعلى رحمه الله تعالى عن أبي يوسف رحمه الله تعالى أنه لا بأس به إذا لم يقصد به الإضرار وإن قصد به الإضرار سوى بينهم يعطي للابنة مثل ما يعطي للابن، وقال محمد رحمه الله تعالى يعطي للذكر ضعف ما يعطي للأنثى والفتوى على قول أبي يوسف رحمه الله تعالى، رجل وهب في صحته كل المال للولد جاز في القضاء ويكون آثما فيما صنع

رد المحتار (8/ 455)

 وقال في الخانية ولو وهب رجل شيئا لأولاده في الصحة وأراد تفضيل البعض على البعض في ذلك لا رواية لهذا في الأصل عن أصحابنا وروي عن الإمام أبي يوسف رحمه الله تعالى أنه لا بأس به إذا كان التفضيل له لزيادة فضل في الدين وإن كانا سواء يكره

 وروى المعلى عن أبي يوسف أنه لا بأس به إذا لم يقصد به الإضرار وإن قصد به الإضرار سوى بينهم يعطي الابنة مثل ما يعطي الابن

[ii]  [النساء: 12]

{وَلَهُنَّ الرُّبُعُ مِمَّا تَرَكْتُمْ إِنْ لَمْ يَكُنْ لَكُمْ وَلَدٌ فَإِنْ كَانَ لَكُمْ وَلَدٌ فَلَهُنَّ الثُّمُنُ مِمَّا تَرَكْتُمْ مِنْ بَعْدِ وَصِيَّةٍ تُوصُونَ بِهَا أَوْ دَيْنٍ}

السراجي في الميراث ص 18

أما للزوجات فحالتان:……..والثمن مع الولد أو ولد الإبن وإن سفل.

دليل الوراث ص 18

قوله والثمن مع الولد إلخ: لقوله تعالى:(فَإِنْ كَانَ لَكُمْ وَلَدٌ فَلَهُنَّ الثُّمُنُ) ولا فرق بين أن يكون ولد منها أو من غيرها

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